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DanJames -> RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? (5/5/2008 4:34:24 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Bettawrekonize quote:
ORIGINAL: DanJames Endogenous is an unfortunate term then. It implies that the retrovirus is actually produced by the body, but I am but a babe in scientific data that strays too far from a freshmen biology textbook unless it has to do with plants. Thanks very much for clearing that up. Danjames, read my post 3 and the link to it. I go into detail about ERV's and how it's not evidence for evolution (and I try to make it as simple as possible). If you have any questions, feel free to ask, I would try to explain things the best I can when I have time. Basically, someone who inherits an ERV may pass it onto his offspring, but they have to inherit it from their germ line. However, if an ERV doesn't pose any advantages, there is no reason for an entire population to acquire so many ERV's, instead, it should be that some members have some that other members don't. For example, some members of a population have green eyes, some have blue, some have brown, etc... Not all members have acquired blue eyes or green eyes. Both parents, at the exact time(s) of speciation, would have to have the same ERV(s), and this would have to be the case for every ERV that exists among all humans that entered the "tree." If ERV's don't provide an advantage, then this makes no sense from an evolutionary perspective (it's highly unlikely). If they do provide an advantage, then it makes sense for a designer to put that code there (because it helps the organism out). Otherwise, we would expect different people to have all sorts of different ERV's (kinda like different people have different hair color, eye color, etc...). We wouldn't expect code with no selective advantage to wind up in our entire population, that's just nonsense (and if this is the case, I consider it to be a problem for evolution). and if you read the thread, "empirical evidence for evolution" you can see that there is really none. gluadys clearly contradicted himself (as unk pointed out), the best evidence they can come up with is poorly interpreted circumstantial evidence (some highly distorted bones with much dispute over, even among the secular community), and the alleged falsifiers have been addressed many times in other threads (ie: Darwin made falsifiers for UCD, he turned out to be wrong, and it didn't falsify UCD. So the secular community simply changes the alleged falsifiers when, in reality, their falsifiers are not even relevant. I can just as easily say, "if you prove the sky is purple, it would falsify UCD", or "if you find an organism in nature that doesn't use ATP, it would falsify ID or creationism." Just because someone can make up some falsifier does not make UCD falsifiable, the falsifiers have to be relevant and many of the relevant falsifiers have been falsified (ie: the ones Darwin made)). While you may not be well versed in biology (at least not yet), I think it is a good thing you have come to this forum. You will have an opportunity to look at both sides of the evidence and I believe that, after looking at both sides of the evidence and getting a better understanding of the arguments on both sides, you will reasonably be able to conclude that UCD and other naturalistic philosophies are no more scientific than Creationism or ID. Thanks Betta. Oh, and thank you also for pointing out my blunder of giving personal info with the AIDS full text. Good lookin' out.
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