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RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent?

 
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RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 4/25/2008 1:02:45 AM   
Jhud


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quote:

You claim that gravity is observable, but the diversity of species is not?


Do you know the difference between a cause and an effect?

quote:

Of course we can observe the diversity of species, but that obviously begs the question.


Wrong. What you are describing here is the THEORY OF EVOLUTION. Actual evolution (the process) is not an 'idea'. It is an actual process happening in nature.

No it’s not; it is actually at minimum two processes, and now it is a moniker ascribed to many disparate processes.

quote:

Are you saying that the theory of evolution has not been tested?


I am saying that you can’t reproduce or observe much of what evolution is claimed to have done, only infer it.

quote:

Evolution is the change of alleles over time. The theory of evolution is a man made explanation of how this happens, and how it can result in the diversity of species we see in nature.


Well great; now we need a theory to explain how the change in alleles effects the development of novel body plans, organs, structures and capabilities – I suggest ID.

quote:

I'll help you out. Biological evolution is the process in nature that allows creatures to adapt to their surroundings. Thats it.


Same response as above.

quote:

The theory of evolution is a man made tool (scientific theory) that helps us explain how this happens, as well as harnessing the process for out own needs.


Yes, we all know this already; unfortunately it is an inadequate tool, which has actually been shown to have been wrongly applied throughout its history.

_____________________________

Jack

“I mean to live my life an obedient man, but obedient to God, subservient to the wisdom of my ancestors; never to the authority of political truths arrived at yesterday at the voting booth”

William F. Buckley Jr. 1925-200
Post #: 26
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 4/25/2008 10:31:02 AM   
DanJames


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You mentioned in the OP that you wanted my opinion. I'll print off the essay and read it at a later time. It's finals time around here so I don't have a huge amount of time to read and respond (which is why I never realized this was ever posted). I'll try to get a response to the OP by tomorrow.
Post #: 27
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 4/28/2008 11:28:50 PM   
Agahnim

 

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quote:

I'll try to get a response to the OP by tomorrow.

Do you think you’ll be getting to this soon? It’s been around three days now.

_____________________________

"I like your Christ. I do not like your Christians. Your Christians are so unlike your Christ." --Mahatma Gandhi
Post #: 28
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/1/2008 8:41:07 PM   
DanJames


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I stopped reading the posts when Jhud said that he was known as the "Doctor of Love". I figured the thread wouldn't recover from something like that. But as a note on that, I started telling my wife that I wanted a Master's Degree in her... thought that was pretty romantic. Anyway, ERVs.

This talk very quickly went over my head. I don't even know what a retrovirus is, and I can only assume that an endogenous retrovirus is a retrovirus that originates from and/or is produced by its host organism. If endogenous retroviruses do indeed form a history like the one you presented in your essay, and that history links humans and great apes as you imply, then it is strong evidence of a connection between humans and great apes, like you said. What I consistently find is that, true to my predictions, the interpretation of this data as being evolutionary doesn't stand the test of time. Even antibacterial resistance is evidence of a front-loading of complexity predicted by ID. Antibacterial resistance is a very real phenomenon, and anyone that denied its existence because they are a creationist is shown to be silly. Yet look how an increase in knowledge has shown that it isn't something to be afraid of. I'll be interested in finding out where this information leads.
Post #: 29
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/1/2008 8:44:17 PM   
DanJames


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You mentioned that you wanted me to post a reply because I said that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them. This is true, but I want to clarify. I will not be convinced that scripture, when properly interpreted, is untrue. Scripture is demonstrably divine in origin, and that Divinity which inspired the scriptures has claimed through the author of the 30th Proverb that the whole word of God is pure. That being the case, science must confirm scripture. That is my starting point. Now let me recover. I do not reject any form of science simply because it disagrees with my idea of the history of the universe. Indeed, I have been wrong many times because I thought that Pangea was a crock in and of itself simply because it seemed "evolution-esque". What's more, I can't help but assume that evolution to some extent has to have happened because there were only two or seven of each kind that got off of the ark. That being the case, I am not going to reject a research project just because it disagrees with how I view the history of the universe because there is very likely some element of truth in it, you just have to dig to find it. I only tell you this because I want to influence others to either find fault in my methods and tell me about it, or share them.
But even so, I get tired of people equating "science" and "evolution". I'm reading the book The Language of God, and right from the get go he starts talking about people that fear and hate science... ugh! Give me a break! He talks about how science has made computers! And rockets! And the like, as if to say that creationists are Amish activists afraid of technological advances and the threat they pose to Biblical fidelity! It's theory of origin of all species from a common ancestor that we're skeptical about, not science. He doesn't even make it through the introduction before he paints a picture of a clad of creationists that I've never met, and sets the stage to fell a tower that was never built to win a war that was never waged.
Post #: 30
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/1/2008 10:20:16 PM   
gluadys

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: DanJames
This talk very quickly went over my head. I don't even know what a retrovirus is,


Viruses come in many forms, just like birds or roses or dogs. The name "retrovirus" refers to the particular way this type of virus manages its attack on a cell, but that is all you really need to know. Just think of it as one "breed" or "type" of virus.

quote:

and I can only assume that an endogenous retrovirus is a retrovirus that originates from and/or is produced by its host organism.


Nope. Retroviruses, like any other, attack from outside. What is (or rather becomes) endogenous in this case is a bit of virus DNA that remains in the cell after a failed attack. If this DNA is in a germline cell, and that cell happens to participate in the conception of a new organism, the child so conceived inherits this viral DNA along with the DNA from the parent.

It is viral DNA that is inherited in this way that is known as "endogenous".

For reasons given in the OP, it is highly unlikely that the same ERV would occur independently in two different species.
Post #: 31
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/1/2008 10:24:53 PM   
gluadys

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: DanJames

You mentioned that you wanted me to post a reply because I said that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them. This is true, but I want to clarify. I will not be convinced that scripture, when properly interpreted, is untrue. Scripture is demonstrably divine in origin, and that Divinity which inspired the scriptures has claimed through the author of the 30th Proverb that the whole word of God is pure. That being the case, science must confirm scripture. That is my starting point.


I can understand that within a framework of faith, science must not contradict scripture. I never heard before that science must confirm scripture. Why this requirement?
Post #: 32
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/2/2008 2:26:05 AM   
Agahnim

 

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quote:

If endogenous retroviruses do indeed form a history like the one you presented in your essay, and that history links humans and great apes as you imply, then it is strong evidence of a connection between humans and great apes, like you said. What I consistently find is that, true to my predictions, the interpretation of this data as being evolutionary doesn't stand the test of time. Even antibacterial resistance is evidence of a front-loading of complexity predicted by ID. Antibacterial resistance is a very real phenomenon, and anyone that denied its existence because they are a creationist is shown to be silly. Yet look how an increase in knowledge has shown that it isn't something to be afraid of. I'll be interested in finding out where this information leads.

First of all, thanks for replying to this.

With this in mind, I’d like to ask: in how much depth do you think ERVs would need to be studied before we can be confident that this interpretation of this line of evidence is correct? At this point, they’ve been known for at least 10 years; the earliest references to them I can find are from around 1998, but there may be technical literature about them that’s even older. And obviously, our understanding of virology is much older than this.

I would hope that if further investigations of this line of evidence support the conclusion described in the OP, there could eventually come a point where the certainty of this conclusion will be greater than your certainty that the beginning of Genesis is literally true. But I would like to know what you think it would take for that to be the case.

_____________________________

"I like your Christ. I do not like your Christians. Your Christians are so unlike your Christ." --Mahatma Gandhi
Post #: 33
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/3/2008 3:32:37 PM   
DanJames


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quote:

ORIGINAL: gluadys

Nope. Retroviruses, like any other, attack from outside. What is (or rather becomes) endogenous in this case is a bit of virus DNA that remains in the cell after a failed attack. If this DNA is in a germline cell, and that cell happens to participate in the conception of a new organism, the child so conceived inherits this viral DNA along with the DNA from the parent.

It is viral DNA that is inherited in this way that is known as "endogenous".

For reasons given in the OP, it is highly unlikely that the same ERV would occur independently in two different species.


Endogenous is an unfortunate term then. It implies that the retrovirus is actually produced by the body, but I am but a babe in scientific data that strays too far from a freshmen biology textbook unless it has to do with plants. Thanks very much for clearing that up.

quote:

ORIGINAL: gluadys

I can understand that within a framework of faith, science must not contradict scripture. I never heard before that science must confirm scripture. Why this requirement?


If the Bible is demonstrated to be divine in origin, and that Divinity has made a scientific statement, and said Divinity is not untruthful in what he says, then our scientific endeavors must reach the conclusion that agrees with the statement of the Divinity. Otherwise the preceding statements are not true.
I don't think we need to go too deep into it as it has little to do with the OP. My only point is that I don't fear learning everything that the present scientific body has to offer and accepting much of it as true because I know that when we reach the top of the mountain of scientific data, we'll find a Bible printing press had been their since 4000 BC

< Message edited by DanJames -- 5/3/2008 3:44:56 PM >
Post #: 34
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/3/2008 3:59:26 PM   
DanJames


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Agahnim

quote:

If endogenous retroviruses do indeed form a history like the one you presented in your essay, and that history links humans and great apes as you imply, then it is strong evidence of a connection between humans and great apes, like you said. What I consistently find is that, true to my predictions, the interpretation of this data as being evolutionary doesn't stand the test of time. Even antibacterial resistance is evidence of a front-loading of complexity predicted by ID. Antibacterial resistance is a very real phenomenon, and anyone that denied its existence because they are a creationist is shown to be silly. Yet look how an increase in knowledge has shown that it isn't something to be afraid of. I'll be interested in finding out where this information leads.

First of all, thanks for replying to this.

With this in mind, I’d like to ask: in how much depth do you think ERVs would need to be studied before we can be confident that this interpretation of this line of evidence is correct? At this point, they’ve been known for at least 10 years; the earliest references to them I can find are from around 1998, but there may be technical literature about them that’s even older. And obviously, our understanding of virology is much older than this.

I would hope that if further investigations of this line of evidence support the conclusion described in the OP, there could eventually come a point where the certainty of this conclusion will be greater than your certainty that the beginning of Genesis is literally true. But I would like to know what you think it would take for that to be the case.


I'm not going to put a date on it. We've known about antibacterial resistance for a very long time, and only now I discover that it provides evidence and predictions for Intelligent Design. Interestingly, not something that I would ever expect to hear in the classroom. The Icons of Evolution are pillars not easily toppled.
I must say that there will never be a point in which the certainty of this conclusion will ever be greater than my certainty that the beginning of Genesis is true when read correctly because scripture is objective truth to which all other facts must be subject. I won't predict how ERVs will be found to align with scripture, but my prediction is that they will.
Post #: 35
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/3/2008 6:03:49 PM   
gluadys

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: DanJames
If the Bible is demonstrated to be divine in origin,


Well, that is a big assumption right there. Do you equate "inspired" with "divine origin"?



quote:

and that Divinity has made a scientific statement, and said Divinity is not untruthful in what he says, then our scientific endeavors must reach the conclusion that agrees with the statement of the Divinity. Otherwise the preceding statements are not true.



We might consider too WHERE God made scientific statements. Scripture tells us nature was created by God's Word. Perhaps, then nature is where God made true scientific statements.

If we think scripture does not accord with God's creation statements (i.e. nature), perhaps it is our fallible human interpretation of scripture that needs to be revised.

Certainly that is what the church learned from the Copernican controversy.
Post #: 36
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/3/2008 11:43:33 PM   
DanJames


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quote:

ORIGINAL: gluadys

quote:

ORIGINAL: DanJames
If the Bible is demonstrated to be divine in origin,


Well, that is a big assumption right there. Do you equate "inspired" with "divine origin"?



quote:

and that Divinity has made a scientific statement, and said Divinity is not untruthful in what he says, then our scientific endeavors must reach the conclusion that agrees with the statement of the Divinity. Otherwise the preceding statements are not true.



We might consider too WHERE God made scientific statements. Scripture tells us nature was created by God's Word. Perhaps, then nature is where God made true scientific statements.

If we think scripture does not accord with God's creation statements (i.e. nature), perhaps it is our fallible human interpretation of scripture that needs to be revised.

Certainly that is what the church learned from the Copernican controversy.


Well, again, this has very little to do with the OP and is even leaving the purpose of the Science and Origins section of this forum. The statement was made that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them, and I wanted to just set the record straight as to what that means. I'd be happy to discuss this topic further in another thread, though.
Post #: 37
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/4/2008 2:04:24 AM   
Agahnim

 

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quote:

Well, again, this has very little to do with the OP and is even leaving the purpose of the Science and Origins section of this forum. The statement was made that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them, and I wanted to just set the record straight as to what that means. I'd be happy to discuss this topic further in another thread, though.

As the one who posted this thread, I don’t have a problem with discussing this topic here. I think it’s pretty clear that none of the creationists here other than you are going to have anything to say about this topic, and in your case I don’t think there’s very much left to prove about the OP itself. You’ve already agreed that based on what we can currently see in this line of evidence, it appears to suggest a relationship between humans and chimps, so the question now is just whether it’s appropriate to revise your understanding of the Bible based on that knowledge.

There’s an essay I’ve posted at Christian Forums related to this idea that I think you might be interested in reading: http://christianforums.com/t6933703

To summarize the point I’ve made there, it isn’t possible to understand anything without the use of observation and reason, not even the Bible. We rely on our eyes in order to read the Bible, and we rely on our understanding of the world in order to determine that the Bible is more likely to be divinely inspired than any of the dozens of other religious texts that claim this, such as the Koran. More specifically, the only way to be certain that the Bible is divinely inspired is because the things it says about the world appear to be true. How is it, then, that when our understanding of the world runs contrary to our interpretation of the Bible, the latter can be considered a higher authority than the former? When both your certainty that the Bible is divinely inspired and your chosen interpretation of Genesis depend on the same human understanding that has been used to conclude common descent from ERVs, I don’t think it’s reasonable to say that the first overrules the second.

There’s a bit more to my point about this than can be summarized in a single paragraph, so I recommend that you read the essay I linked to, whenever you have the time for it. I’d like to discuss this particular topic with you eventually, whether it’s here or in a new thread.

_____________________________

"I like your Christ. I do not like your Christians. Your Christians are so unlike your Christ." --Mahatma Gandhi
Post #: 38
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 3:29:11 PM   
Method

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: Jhud

Well, I have never understood the 'evolutionary' part of the ERV argument as ERVs are said to be the product of external entities rapidly modifying the genomes of organisms; that isn't of course an evolutionary process in the Neo-Darwinian sense of the word.


ERV's are a much better example of common ancestry. More accurately, ORTHOLOGOUS ERV's are consistent with the predictions of common ancestry. Once the insertion time is mapped by using the theory of evolution then one can determine the possible importance of an ERV where the evolution of both the host and retrovirus are concerned. Most ERV's accumulate mutations at a rate consistent with neutral drift, as would be expected if most ERV's are neutral. In fact, some ERV insertions sites are polymorphic among humans, but there is no altered phenotype associated with the presence or lack of the ERV. However, there are ERV's linked to both benefice and detrimental conditions. This means that ERV's are no different than any other random mutation. They can be neutral, beneficial, or detrimental.

quote:

But as far as the main thesis of the OP, I think for the IDist the question is, "Does the ERV serve a purpose in the development of life?", and I think that yes, like the trend with presumed 'junk DNA', we are finding that it may serve a very important purpose in that regard.


As stated above, some humans have a specific ERV and some do not. There is no observable phenotypic difference between them. Also, there are ERV's linked to disease, such as diabetes (DQ-LTR13). Does ID predict that the intelligent designer inserted LTR's to induce disease? Does ID predict that ERV's will accumulate mutations equal to that of neutral drift? Does ID predict a nested hierarchy among orthologous ERV's? Can ID explain sequence differences between ERV's? Evolution can answer these questions in spades, but what of ID?
Post #: 39
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:01:41 PM   
Jhud


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From: Lake Wobegon
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quote:

ERV's are a much better example of common ancestry. More accurately, ORTHOLOGOUS ERV's are consistent with the predictions of common ancestry. Once the insertion time is mapped by using the theory of evolution then one can determine the possible importance of an ERV where the evolution of both the host and retrovirus are concerned. Most ERV's accumulate mutations at a rate consistent with neutral drift, as would be expected if most ERV's are neutral. In fact, some ERV insertions sites are polymorphic among humans, but there is no altered phenotype associated with the presence or lack of the ERV. However, there are ERV's linked to both benefice and detrimental conditions. This means that ERV's are no different than any other random mutation. They can be neutral, beneficial, or detrimental.


Even if one assumed all this, ERVs are not particularly strong evidence that evolutionary mechanisms can do what they are purported to do.

quote:

As stated above, some humans have a specific ERV and some do not. There is no observable phenotypic difference between them. Also, there are ERV's linked to disease, such as diabetes (DQ-LTR13). Does ID predict that the intelligent designer inserted LTR's to induce disease? Does ID predict that ERV's will accumulate mutations equal to that of neutral drift? Does ID predict a nested hierarchy among orthologous ERV's? Can ID explain sequence differences between ERV's? Evolution can answer these questions in spades, but what of ID?


So, if all humans share certain ERVs, and only some humans suffer from a genetically linked form of diabetes, then it would follow that it is not the ERV itself that causes the disease, but some mutation of it.

And while ID does not negate the existence of mutations, it does a much better job of explaining why some ERVs appear to be critical to the existence of certain organisms, and would predict that, much as has occurred with the initial failed idea of 'junk DNA' proposed by evolutionists, ERVs will eventually be found to be generally useful, indeed essential components of genetic systems found within living organisms. That would be the predictive power of ID.

_____________________________

Jack

“I mean to live my life an obedient man, but obedient to God, subservient to the wisdom of my ancestors; never to the authority of political truths arrived at yesterday at the voting booth”

William F. Buckley Jr. 1925-200
Post #: 40
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:03:37 PM   
DanJames


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Agahnim

quote:

Well, again, this has very little to do with the OP and is even leaving the purpose of the Science and Origins section of this forum. The statement was made that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them, and I wanted to just set the record straight as to what that means. I'd be happy to discuss this topic further in another thread, though.

As the one who posted this thread, I don’t have a problem with discussing this topic here. I think it’s pretty clear that none of the creationists here other than you are going to have anything to say about this topic, and in your case I don’t think there’s very much left to prove about the OP itself. You’ve already agreed that based on what we can currently see in this line of evidence, it appears to suggest a relationship between humans and chimps, so the question now is just whether it’s appropriate to revise your understanding of the Bible based on that knowledge.

There’s an essay I’ve posted at Christian Forums related to this idea that I think you might be interested in reading: http://christianforums.com/t6933703

To summarize the point I’ve made there, it isn’t possible to understand anything without the use of observation and reason, not even the Bible. We rely on our eyes in order to read the Bible, and we rely on our understanding of the world in order to determine that the Bible is more likely to be divinely inspired than any of the dozens of other religious texts that claim this, such as the Koran. More specifically, the only way to be certain that the Bible is divinely inspired is because the things it says about the world appear to be true. How is it, then, that when our understanding of the world runs contrary to our interpretation of the Bible, the latter can be considered a higher authority than the former? When both your certainty that the Bible is divinely inspired and your chosen interpretation of Genesis depend on the same human understanding that has been used to conclude common descent from ERVs, I don’t think it’s reasonable to say that the first overrules the second.

There’s a bit more to my point about this than can be summarized in a single paragraph, so I recommend that you read the essay I linked to, whenever you have the time for it. I’d like to discuss this particular topic with you eventually, whether it’s here or in a new thread.


I think you're getting this a bit backwards. You're saying that because our science books claim that the earth is a gazillion years old and that all life originated from one ancestor, therefore the Bible is demonstrated to be untrue because it disagrees. I used reason to conclude that your essay describes ERVs in a way that would lead me to conclude that there is evidence of a common ancestor between apes and humans. I use reason to conclude that the Bible must be true apart from our observations in nature, which are always incomplete and notoriously mis-understandable. The Bible disagrees with my conclusion based on your essay, and naturally the Bible must be the higher authority, therefore the conclusion I reached based on your essay must be wrong. I don't know how I am wrong, so I must assume that everything in your essay is true until proven wrong scientifically.

The Bible is demonstrated to be divinely inspired because it says things that only God can know. For instance, the way to tell if a prophet is from God is that he or she would make a prediction and, if it came true, the prophet was known to speak for God. I think the Bible as a whole can be demonstrated to be divine as well, in that the history of the middle-east was given before any of it ever happened. A very compact version of this is shown in Nebuchadnezzar's statue dream. (wow, I totally just spelled that guy's name correctly on the first try!) Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, Rome, and even the countries that came from Rome's fall were pictured in this statue. (Daniel 2) Today, we can't even get tomorrow's weather correct, but here we see the next 400+ years of history recorded in scripture. Even the amount of time that Syria would control and oppress Israel (2300 days) and the manner in which the oppressive king would die is recorded in Daniel 8. Very unlikely indeed that a king would die an ill-timed death due to disease. Other prophecy that Daniel gives is so specific that it is thought that the book was written afterwards. Ezekiel, also gives a very unlikely prediction of the future and fall of the powerful city of Tyre. (Ezekiel 26-28) Any fortune cookie can predict bad times, but to say that a mighty nation will fall when it's still in its prime... that takes divinity.
Post #: 41
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:11:54 PM   
gluadys

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: Jhud

Well, I have never understood the 'evolutionary' part of the ERV argument as ERVs are said to be the product of external entities rapidly modifying the genomes of organisms; that isn't of course an evolutionary process in the Neo-Darwinian sense of the word.


I didn't notice this until Method responded to your post.

What makes you say that the rewriting of DNA by an "external entity" is not part of the evolutionary process in the neo-Darwinian sense of the word?

The neo-Darwinian definition of evolution is a change in the distribution of alleles in the gene pool over generations. How new alleles originate--whether the originating agent is internal or external-- is irrelevant to that definition.
Post #: 42
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:17:02 PM   
DanJames


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Agahnim

quote:

Well, again, this has very little to do with the OP and is even leaving the purpose of the Science and Origins section of this forum. The statement was made that I don't cling to ideas if science disproves them, and I wanted to just set the record straight as to what that means. I'd be happy to discuss this topic further in another thread, though.

As the one who posted this thread, I don’t have a problem with discussing this topic here. I think it’s pretty clear that none of the creationists here other than you are going to have anything to say about this topic, and in your case I don’t think there’s very much left to prove about the OP itself. You’ve already agreed that based on what we can currently see in this line of evidence, it appears to suggest a relationship between humans and chimps, so the question now is just whether it’s appropriate to revise your understanding of the Bible based on that knowledge.

There’s an essay I’ve posted at Christian Forums related to this idea that I think you might be interested in reading: http://christianforums.com/t6933703

To summarize the point I’ve made there, it isn’t possible to understand anything without the use of observation and reason, not even the Bible. We rely on our eyes in order to read the Bible, and we rely on our understanding of the world in order to determine that the Bible is more likely to be divinely inspired than any of the dozens of other religious texts that claim this, such as the Koran. More specifically, the only way to be certain that the Bible is divinely inspired is because the things it says about the world appear to be true. How is it, then, that when our understanding of the world runs contrary to our interpretation of the Bible, the latter can be considered a higher authority than the former? When both your certainty that the Bible is divinely inspired and your chosen interpretation of Genesis depend on the same human understanding that has been used to conclude common descent from ERVs, I don’t think it’s reasonable to say that the first overrules the second.

There’s a bit more to my point about this than can be summarized in a single paragraph, so I recommend that you read the essay I linked to, whenever you have the time for it. I’d like to discuss this particular topic with you eventually, whether it’s here or in a new thread.


I think you're getting this a bit backwards. You're saying that because our science books claim that the earth is a gazillion years old and that all life originated from one ancestor, therefore the Bible is demonstrated to be untrue because it disagrees. I used reason to conclude that your essay describes ERVs in a way that would lead me to conclude that there is evidence of a common ancestor between apes and humans. I use reason to conclude that the Bible must be true apart from our observations in nature, which are always incomplete and notoriously mis-understandable. The Bible disagrees with my conclusion based on your essay, and naturally the Bible must be the higher authority, therefore the conclusion I reached based on your essay must be wrong. I don't know how I am wrong, so I must assume that everything in your essay is true until proven wrong scientifically.

The Bible is demonstrated to be divinely inspired because it says things that only God can know. For instance, the way to tell if a prophet is from God is that he or she would make a prediction and, if it came true, the prophet was known to speak for God. I think the Bible as a whole can be demonstrated to be divine as well, in that the history of the middle-east was given before any of it ever happened. A very compact version of this is shown in Nebuchadnezzar's statue dream. (wow, I totally just spelled that guy's name correctly on the first try!) Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, Rome, and even the countries that came from Rome's fall were pictured in this statue. (Daniel 2) Today, we can't even get tomorrow's weather correct, but here we see the next 400+ years of history recorded in scripture. Even the amount of time that Syria would control and oppress Israel (2300 days) and the manner in which the oppressive king would die is recorded in Daniel 8. Very unlikely indeed that a king would die an ill-timed death due to disease. Other prophecy that Daniel gives is so specific that it is thought that the book was written afterwards. Ezekiel, also gives a very unlikely prediction of the future and fall of the powerful city of Tyre. (Ezekiel 26-28) Any fortune cookie can predict bad times, but to say that a mighty nation will fall when it's still in its prime... that takes divinity.
Post #: 43
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:20:31 PM   
Bettawrekonize

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: DanJames
Endogenous is an unfortunate term then. It implies that the retrovirus is actually produced by the body, but I am but a babe in scientific data that strays too far from a freshmen biology textbook unless it has to do with plants. Thanks very much for clearing that up.


Danjames, read my post 3 and the link to it. I go into detail about ERV's and how it's not evidence for evolution (and I try to make it as simple as possible). If you have any questions, feel free to ask, I would try to explain things the best I can when I have time. Basically, someone who inherits an ERV may pass it onto his offspring, but they have to inherit it from their germ line. However, if an ERV doesn't pose any advantages, there is no reason for an entire population to acquire so many ERV's, instead, it should be that some members have some that other members don't. For example, some members of a population have green eyes, some have blue, some have brown, etc... Not all members have acquired blue eyes or green eyes. Both parents, at the exact time(s) of speciation, would have to have the same ERV(s), and this would have to be the case for every ERV that exists among all humans that entered the "tree." If ERV's don't provide an advantage, then this makes no sense from an evolutionary perspective (it's highly unlikely). If they do provide an advantage, then it makes sense for a designer to put that code there (because it helps the organism out). Otherwise, we would expect different people to have all sorts of different ERV's (kinda like different people have different hair color, eye color, etc...). We wouldn't expect code with no selective advantage to wind up in our entire population, that's just nonsense (and if this is the case, I consider it to be a problem for evolution).

and if you read the thread, "empirical evidence for evolution" you can see that there is really none. gluadys clearly contradicted himself (as unk pointed out), the best evidence they can come up with is poorly interpreted circumstantial evidence (some highly distorted bones with much dispute over, even among the secular community), and the alleged falsifiers have been addressed many times in other threads (ie: Darwin made falsifiers for UCD, he turned out to be wrong, and it didn't falsify UCD. So the secular community simply changes the alleged falsifiers when, in reality, their falsifiers are not even relevant. I can just as easily say, "if you prove the sky is purple, it would falsify UCD", or "if you find an organism in nature that doesn't use ATP, it would falsify ID or creationism." Just because someone can make up some falsifier does not make UCD falsifiable, the falsifiers have to be relevant and many of the relevant falsifiers have been falsified (ie: the ones Darwin made)).

While you may not be well versed in biology (at least not yet), I think it is a good thing you have come to this forum. You will have an opportunity to look at both sides of the issue and I believe that, after looking at both sides and getting a better understanding of the arguments on both sides, you will reasonably be able to conclude that UCD and other naturalistic philosophies are no more scientific than Creationism or ID.

< Message edited by Bettawrekonize -- 5/5/2008 4:39:05 PM >
Post #: 44
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:21:24 PM   
Jhud


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quote:

I didn't notice this until Method responded to your post.

What makes you say that the rewriting of DNA by an "external entity" is not part of the evolutionary process in the neo-Darwinian sense of the word?

The neo-Darwinian definition of evolution is a change in the distribution of alleles in the gene pool over generations. How new alleles originate--whether the originating agent is internal or external-- is irrelevant to that definition.


Well, if 'neo-Darwinism' is indifferent to the origin of genetic information, then it certainly has no reason to discount ID.

_____________________________

Jack

“I mean to live my life an obedient man, but obedient to God, subservient to the wisdom of my ancestors; never to the authority of political truths arrived at yesterday at the voting booth”

William F. Buckley Jr. 1925-200
Post #: 45
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:24:48 PM   
Method

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: Jhud
Even if one assumed all this, ERVs are not particularly strong evidence that evolutionary mechanisms can do what they are purported to do.


But it is strong evidence that chimps and humans share a common ancestor. I have yet to see someone argue that ERV's shared among siblings is due to the actions of an intelligent agent on each genome. Rather, the orthologous ERV's are explained by common descent. I see no reason why this does not extend to humans and chimps, or all primates for that matter.

quote:

So, if all humans share certain ERVs, and only some humans suffer from a genetically linked form of diabetes, then it would follow that it is not the ERV itself that causes the disease, but some mutation of it.


Then the ERV was front loaded to cause diabetes, in ID lingo. How does that help?

quote:

And while ID does not negate the existence of mutations, it does a much better job of explaining why some ERVs appear to be critical to the existence of certain organisms,


ID fails at telling us why some ERV's are completely neutral and why some are detrimental. Being that the mechanism of ERV insertion is blind to the fitness of the host, random insertion of ERV's through known (non-intelligent) insertion is a much better explanation.

quote:

and would predict that, much as has occurred with the initial failed idea of 'junk DNA' proposed by evolutionists, ERVs will eventually be found to be generally useful, indeed essential components of genetic systems found within living organisms. That would be the predictive power of ID.


If one person has and ERV and another doesn't, what would ID predict?
Post #: 46
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:26:37 PM   
Method

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: Jhud
Well, if 'neo-Darwinism' is indifferent to the origin of genetic information, then it certainly has no reason to discount ID.


What is in contention is the ability of already present genetic information to undergo unguided mutation followed by selection to produce the biodiversity we see today.
Post #: 47
RE: Can ERVs be explained without common descent? - 5/5/2008 4:31:56 PM   
DanJames


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