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Machaira -> RE: "Jesus wept" Why? (7/4/2008 12:33:59 PM)
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quote:
"Jesus wept" Why? I think generally speaking the answer is found in the fact that the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, took on a human nature. This simply means that as a man, Jesus would have been subject to Human emotion, at least to some extent. This can be seen clearly in the Garden of Gethsemane and Jesus' weeping over Jerusalem, (Matthew 26:37-39; Luke 19:41), for example. Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin. Heb 2:14 Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil . . . Heb 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. Php 2:7 but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. Php 2:8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. When considering the preceding verses the following makes perfect sense: Joh 11:33 When Jesus saw her weeping, and the Jews who had come with her also weeping, he was deeply moved in his spirit and greatly troubled. Jesus was obviously moved by the Human predicament and the emotion it produces. One commentator also suggests the following: It is right, it is natural, it is indispensable for the Christian to sympathize with others in their afflictions. Rom_12:15; “rejoice with them that do rejoice, and weep with them that weep.” - Albert Barnes on John 11:35
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